Slam Hand?

Question

Hi Bernard, My playing partner and I are generally pretty good at spotting and bidding slam hands, thanks to you. But we missed this one by a mile! Our bidding was 1H 2C 2S(rev) 3D(FSF) 3NT. West didn’t want to deny a D stopper nor bid 3H (weakest response). East didn’t want to gamble on bidding 6NT directly over 3NT. In reviewing the hands, I as West thought that, having a 4 loser opposite East’s 2-level response, should have been thinking about a possible slam. With a 6430 hand and poor spades (to be ignored?), the bidding could have started 1H 2C 3H which would have been an easy path to slam. My questions are: 1. How would you have bid the slam? H or NT? 2. Is it possible to get to slam after our original opening bids 1H 2C 2S 3D … ?

Bernard's Answer

East has 16 points opposite a reverse bid with the aces of both partner’s suits – I am afraid to say the blame sits squarely with him. If partner has a good reverse 17-19 then we have the 33 points required. If he has a reverse based on suit length/strength and perhaps 15/16 points then the fact East has both aces means that the hand will still surely make a slam. Clearly you would like to finish in 7H, but over the 3NT bid perhaps 6NT is the likely finish. I think West must show both majors, but perhaps 3H is a better rebid over the FSF – yes, you might miss 3NT but with the 6-4 -3-0 shape it does look like it wants to play in a suit. Now West might pursue a heart contract.